Email Id : support@studentehelp.com

Blog

QNT 561 Final Exam Latest Assignments

2015-12-17 03:21:03

1. A random sample of size 15 is selected from a normal population. The population standard deviation is unknown. Assume the null hypothesis indicates a two-tailed test and the researcher decided to use the 0.10 significance level. For what values of t will the null hypothesis not be rejected?

1. To the left of -1.645 or to the right of 1.645
2. To the left of -1.345 or to the right of 1.345
3. Between -1.761 and 1.761
4. To the left of -1.282 or to the right of 1.282

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of the F distribution?

1. Normally distributed
2. Negatively skewed
3. Equal to the t-distribution
4. Positively skewed

3. For a chi-square test involving a contingency table, suppose the null hypothesis is rejected. We conclude that the two variables are __________.

1. related
2. curvilinear
3. linear
4. not related

4. A sales manager for an advertising agency believes that there is a relationship between the number of contacts that a salesperson makes and the amount of sales dollars earned. What is the dependent variable?

1. sales managers
2. amount of sales dollars
3. salesperson
4. number of contacts

5. Which of the following is most appropriately displayed with a frequency table?

1. What percentage of people prefer Hunt's brand ketchup
2. The home location of the most valuable customers
3. How much explanatory value comes from the study's variables
4. The relationship between gender and job performance

6. The manager of Paul's fruit and vegetable store is considering the purchase of a new seedless watermelon from a wholesale distributor. Since this seedless watermelon costs \$4, will sell for \$7, and is highly perishable, he only expects to sell between six and nine of them. What is the opportunity loss for purchasing nine watermelons when the demand is for seven watermelons?

1. 8
2. 4
3. 12
4. 0

7. A firm offers routine physical examinations as part of a health service program for its employees. The exams showed that 8% of the employees needed corrective shoes, 15% needed major dental work, and 3% needed both corrective shoes and major dental work. What is the probability that an employee selected at random will need either corrective shoes or major dental work?

1. .25
2. 1.00
3. .50
4. .20

8. When data is collected using a qualitative, nominal variable, what is true about a frequency distribution that summarizes the data?

1. The upper and lower class limits must be calculated.
2. The number of classes is equal to the number of variables plus 2.
3. The “5 to the k rule” can be applied.
4. A pie chart can be used to summarize the data.

9. If an ANOVA test is conducted and the null hypothesis is rejected, what does this indicate?

1. The p-value is less than a.
2. All population means are different.
3. At least one pair of population means is different.
4. The population means are equal.

10. A random sample of 20 items is selected from a population. When computing a confidence interval for the population mean, what number of degrees of freedom should be used to determine the appropriate t-value?

1. 25
2. 21
3. 19
4. 20

11. The question, "Should products be withdrawn if even one death is associated with its prescribed use, even if no fault for the tampered product accrues to the manufacturer?" is an example of a (n) _____.

1. strip data mining issue
2. unresearchable question
3. ill-defined problem
4. favored-technique problem

12. A large department store examined a sample of the 18 credit card sales and recorded the amounts charged for each of three types of credit cards: MasterCard, Visa, and Discover. Six MasterCard sales, seven Visa, and five Discover sales were recorded. The store used an ANOVA to test if the mean sales for each credit card were equal. What are the degrees of freedom for the F statistic?

1. 2 in the numerator, 15 in the denominator
2. 6 in the numerator, 15 in the denominator
3. 18 in the numerator, 3 in the denominator
4. 3 in the numerator, 18 in the denominator

13. A linear trend equation is used to represent time series values when the data are changing by equal what?

1. amounts
2. percents and proportions
3. proportions
4. percents

14. Which of the following goals should a good survey instrument accomplish?

1. Encourage each participant to provide accurate responses
2. Encourage participants to be succinct in their responses
3. Encourage participants to answer only those questions they are comfortable answering
4. Encourage participants to end the survey when they feel they have contributed enough information

Complete paper Assignments QNT 561 Complete Assignments

15. Kroger, a grocery store chain, wants to identify the ideal store layout for increasing store sales. Because it primarily uses two store designs, one a grid layout with vertical aisles divided by a center aisle and another using a traditional straight-aisle pattern, Kroger will match pairs of stores that have different designs but similar shopper demographics and location. Sales from each pair will then be compared to determine if store design is related to sales. Which type of study is this an example of?

1. Exploratory study
2. Case study
3. Ex post facto study
4. Longitudinal study

16. Bones Brothers & Associates prepare individual tax returns. Over prior years, Bones Brothers has maintained careful records regarding the time to prepare a return. The mean time to prepare a return is 90 minutes and the standard deviation of this distribution is 14 minutes. Suppose 100 returns from this year are selected and analyzed regarding the preparation time. What assumption do you need to make about the shape of the population distribution of all possible tax preparation times to make inferences about the mean time to complete a tax form?

1. The population distribution is skewed to the left.
2. The population distribution is skewed to the right.
3. The shape of the population distribution does not matter.
4. The population distribution is normal.

17. Checklists with several items to be considered by respondents may be subject to _____.

1. recency effects
2. leniency effects
3. halo effects
4. primacy effects

18. In a multiple rating list scale, ____.

1. participants rate multiple items on a 3-point scale
2. the participant is restricted to circling their rating
3. it is possible to visualize the results better than with other numerical scales
4. the data generated are always ordinal

19. As the size of the sample increases, what happens to the shape of the distribution of sample means?

1. It cannot be predicted in advance
2. It is positively skewed
3. It is negatively skewed
4. It approaches a normal distribution

20. For any chi-square goodness-of-fit test, the number of degrees of freedom is found by ______.

1. n + k
2. k -1
3. n – k - 1
4. n + 1

Quiz Answers just a click away QNT 561 complete course

21. Bank Choice is concerned about stagnating profits and asks, "How can profitability be improved?" This is an example of a (n) _____.

1. research question
2. measurement question
3. management question
4. investigative question

22. A machine is set to fill the small-size packages of M&M candies with 56 candies per bag. A sample revealed three bags of 56, two bags of 57, one bag of 55, and two bags of 58. To test the hypothesis that the mean candies per bag is 56, how many degrees of freedom are there?

1. 1
2. 7
3. 9
4. 8

Want to see the complete Individual Assignment ? Click QNT 561 entire course

23. An experimental study is one that _____.

1. attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another
2. involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable
3. attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses
4. discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much

24. The monthly salaries of a sample of 100 employees were rounded to the nearest \$10. They ranged from a low of \$1,040 to a high of \$1,720. If we want to condense the data into seven classes, what is the most convenient class interval?

1. \$200
2. \$50
3. \$150
4. \$100

25. Consider a regression analysis, where the correlation coefficient is 0.18. Then, the coefficient of determination is _______.

1. .0324
2. .36
3. 1.16
4. .424

26. In multiple regression analysis, when the independent variables are highly correlated, this situation is called __________________.

1. homoscedasticity
2. curvilinearity
3. multicollinearity
4. autocorrelation

27. Sam's Club installed self-checkout stations that can track not only member's purchases but also packaging problems, as the system uses universal product codes to match the item the shopper has in their cart with its price and inventory level in the store, generating a spreadsheet style report for the researcher. If you consider the scanner as the tool for collecting data for Sam's researchers, they are doing data entry by ____.

2. Optical Character Recognition
3. Field editing
4. Voice recognition

28. The weekly incomes of a large group of executives are normally distributed with a mean of \$2,000 and a standard deviation of \$100. What is the z-score for an income of \$2,100?

1. 1.683
2. 0.90
3. 2.00
4. 1.00

29. A ranking scale is a scale that _____.

1. scores an object without making a direct comparison to another object
2. groups participants
3. groups concepts according to specific criteria
4. scores an object by making a comparison and determining order among two or more objects

30. What is the interpretation of a 96% confidence level?

1. The interval contains 96% of all sample means.
2. Approximately 96 out of 100 such intervals would include the true value of the population parameter.
3. There's a 96% chance that the given interval includes the true value of the population parameter.
4. There's a 4% chance that the given interval does not include the true value of the population parameter.

This article covers the topic for the University Of Phoenix QNT 561 Final Exam Answer. The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of QNT 561 Final Exam Assignments from Studentehelp. Other topics in the class are as follows:

Want to check other classes..?? Visit http://www.studentehelp.com

ECO 372 Final Exam Latest UOP Tutorials

2015-09-30 23:27:16

1. News Story: Workers at a car-manufacturing plant in Flint, Michigan are laid off because the economy is weak and GM cars aren't selling well. GM isn't sure when the plant will reopen. What type of unemployment describes the workers' situation?
• Frictional unemployment
• Structural unemployment
• Full unemployment
• Cyclical unemployment
1. Globalization that allows governments to pursue expansionary policies can be dangerous because it can lead to:
• A reduction in the debt ceiling
• Goods price inflation
• Asset price inflation
• Goods price deflation

1. Macroeconomics is:
• The study of aggregate economic relationships.
• An analysis of economic reality that proceeds from the parts to the whole.
• The study of pricing policies of firms and the purchasing decisions of households.
• The study of individual choice and how that choice is influenced by economic forces.
1. Which of the following types of unemployment is considered to be the most controllable through demand-side macroeconomic policy?
• Frictional unemployment
• Cyclical unemployment
• Structural unemployment
• Natural unemployment

1. If banks hold excess reserves whereas before they did not, the money multiplier:
• Will become smaller
• Will become larger
• Might increase or might decrease
• Will be unaffected
1. Using the expenditure approach, gross domestic product equals:
• The sum of consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports
• Gross national product minus net exports
• The sum of consumption, investment, and government purchases
• Gross national product

Complete paper here ECO 372 Complete Paper

1. How do investment in technology and investment in capital differ?
• They have similar effects on output so they have no important differences from an economic point of view.
• They have the same effects on output but investments in technology are much more closely tied to the level of saving than investments in capital.
• They have different effects on output because of the positive externalities associated with investments in capital.
• They have different effects on output because of the positive externalities associate with investments in technology.
1. The interest rate is the price paid for use of a:
• Real asset.
• Financial liability.
• Financial asset.
• Real liability.

1. If the reserve requirement is 20 percent, and banks keep no excess reserves, an increase in an initial inflow of \$100 into the banking system will cause an increase in the money supply of:
• \$50
• \$100
• \$500
• \$20
1.   Suppose farmers can use their land to grown either wheat or corn. The law of   supply predicts that an increase in the market price of wheat will cause:
• Farmers to substitute wheat for the production of corn.
• Farmers to raise the production of corn and wheat.
• Farmers to lower the production of corn and wheat.
• Farmers to substitute corn for the production of wheat.

1.     According to Keynes, why might deflation create problems for an economy?
• In expectation of increased spending, too many entrepreneurs would begin businesses and most would fail.
• The cost of repricing goods would increase costs, and therefore reduce profits, for businesses and they would cut production.
• People would drop out of unions because unions would become ineffective at keeping wages of members high.
• Consumers might expect prices to fall further and cut back consumption now.
1.    When interest rates rise, people are:
• More likely to borrow, that is, purchase a financial asset.
• More likely to borrow, that is, sell a financial asset.
• Less likely to borrow, that is, sell a financial asset.
• Less likely to borrow, that is, purchase a financial asset.

1.    According to the Classical growth model, an economy that increases its saving will grow:
• Quickly since the increase in saving will permit greater investment.
• Quickly since the increase in saving will permit more rapid technological progress.
• Slowly because interest rates will fall, causing investment to decline.
• Slowly because consumption and aggregate demand will be reduced.
1.   Suppose that consumer spending is expected to decrease in the near future. If output is at potential output, which of the following policies is most appropriate according to the AS/AD model?
• A reduction in government spending
• An increase in taxes
• An increase in government spending
• No change in taxes or government spending

1.   Which of the following topics is best characterized as a macroeconomic issue?
• The effect of a drought on the price of corn
• The decision by Apple to produce fewer Macintosh computers
• The effect of an increase in federal spending on the unemployment rate
• The choice a student makes in selecting college course
1.   If income increases more rapidly than expected, then:
• Estimates of the target rate of employment are likely to increase.
• The budget is less likely to be in surplus.
• Tax revenues will be lower than expected.
• Spending on income-support programs will likely be lower than expected.

1.   In which of the following situations is a budget surplus most likely to occur?
• When fiscal policy is contractionary and the economy is expanding
• When fiscal policy is expansionary and the economy is contracting
• When fiscal policy is expansionary
• When the economy is contracting
1.   The largest expenditure component of GDP is:
• Government spending
• Net exports
• Investment
• Consumption

Final Exam Answers just a click away ECO 372 Final Exam

1.   Which of the following is the path through which contractionary monetary policy works?
• Money down implies interest rate up implies investment up implies income down.
• Money down implies interest rate down implies investment down implies income down.
• Money down implies interest rate up implies investment down implies income down.
• Money down implies interest rate down implies investment up implies income down.
1.   As a country develops economically, what changes usually take place in the goods it exports?
• There is little change because comparative advantage does not change.
• Exports go from being diversified to being specialized in whatever the country finds to its comparative advantage.
• Services and manufactured goods decline in importance and are replaced by raw materials and agricultural products.
• Raw materials and agricultural products decline in importance and are replaced by services and manufactured goods.

1.   What would make foreigners want to buy more from the United States?
• Higher tariffs
• Higher interest rates in the United States
• Inflation in the United States
• A fall in the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange market
1. The depreciation of currency will:
• Have no impact on a country's comparative advantage.
• Worsen a country's comparative advantage.
• Improve a country's comparative advantage.

1.   The government of Crossland wants to influence its exchange rate. It will do so by buying and selling:
• Currencies in its official reserves
• Commodities
• Goods and services from the current account
• Transfers
1.   If a country wants to prevent its exchange rates from falling, it could:
• Place restrictions on imports
• Pursue easier monetary policy
• Remove any subsidies on exports
• Remove restrictions on imports

1.   Central banks are responsible for:
• Both monetary policy and fiscal policy
• Monetary policy but not fiscal policy
• Neither monetary policy nor fiscal policy
• Fiscal policy but not monetary policy
1.   Quotas and tariffs can:
• Never have the same effect on imports and import prices.
• Have the same effect on the price of domestically produced goods if they are set appropriately.
• Yield the same amount of tax revenue if they are set appropriately.
• Both increase international trade by the same amount if set appropriately.

1.   Between 2007 and 2009, the U.S. unemployment rate rose from under 5 percent to over 8 percent. A Keynesian economist would most likely blame this increase in unemployment on:
• An increase in the minimum wage.
• An increase in the bargaining power of labor unions.
• A decline in the level of aggregate demand.
• A decline in aggregate supply.
1.   U.S. imports involve an:
• Inflow of foreign currency from foreigners to the U.S. economy
• Inflow of dollars from foreigners to the United States economy
• Outflow of foreign currency from the United States to foreigners
• Outflow of dollars from the United States to foreigners

1.   The law of demand states that quantity demanded of a good is inversely related to the price of that good. Therefore, as the price of a good goes:
• Up, the quantity demanded goes down.
• Down, the quantity demanded stays the same.
• Up, the quantity demanded also goes up.
• Down, the quantity demanded goes down.
1.   According to Keynes, market economies:
• Never experience significant declines in aggregate demand.
• Are constantly experiencing significant declines in aggregate demand.
• May recover slowly after they experience a significant decline in aggregate demand.
• Quickly recover after they experience a significant decline in aggregate demand.

This article covers the topic for the University Of Phoenix ECO 372 WEEK 5 FINAL EXAM (LATEST - 100% CORRECT) The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of  ECO 372 WEEK 5 FINAL EXAM Assignment from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:

Want to check other classes..?? Visit: http://www.StudenteHelp.com

FIN 370 Final Exam Latest UOP Homework Help

2015-09-15 06:30:01

1. The Securities Investor Protection Corporation protects individuals from

• brokerage firm failures
• making poor investment decisions
• fraud by corporations
• other investors who fail to make delivery

2. You just purchased a parcel of land for \$10,000. If you expect a 12% annual rate of return on your investment, how much will you sell the land for in 10 years?

• \$38,720
• \$39,720
• \$31,060
• \$25,000

3. When calculating the weighted average cost of capital, which of the following has to be adjusted for taxes?

• Debt
• Preferred stock
• Retained earnings
• Common stock

4. Buying and selling in more than one market to make a riskless profit is called:

• profit maximization.
• globalization
• arbitrage.

5. Which of the following is true about bonds?

• They have a fixed maturity, and they pay an amount equal to the maturity value times the coupon rate each year.
• At maturity of the bond, the investor receives the market price of the bond.
• They are obligations from the investor to the corporation.
• Their interest rate always varies with the Consumer Price Index

6. Compute the payback period for a project with the following cash flows, if the company's discount rate is 12%.

Initial outlay = \$450

Cash flows:         Year 1 = \$325

Year 2 = \$65

Year 3 = \$100

• 3.17 years
• 2.6 years
• 2.88 years
• 3.43 years

7. Which of the following best describes why cash flows are utilized rather than accounting profits when evaluating capital projects?

• Cash flows have a greater present value than accounting profits.
• Cash flows improve the tax position of a firm more than accounting profits.
• Cash flows are more stable than accounting profits.
• Cash flows reflect the timing of benefits and costs more accurately than accounting profits.

8. Delta Inc. is considering the purchase of a new machine which is expected to increase sales by \$10,000 in addition to increasing non-depreciation expenses by \$3,000 annually. Due to the sales increase, Delta expects its working capital to increase \$1,000 during the life of the project. Delta will depreciate the machine using the straight-line method over the project's five year life to a salvage value of zero. The machine's purchase price is \$20,000. The firm has a marginal tax rate of 34 percent, and its required rate of return is 12 percent. The machine's initial cash outflow is:

• \$23,000.
• \$20,000.
• \$27,000.
• \$21,000.

Complete paper here FIN 370 Complete Assignment

9. Which of the following is most likely to occur if a firm over-invests in net working capital?

• The return on investment will be lower than it should be.
• The times interest earned ratio will be lower than it should be.
• The current ratio will be lower than it should be.
• The quick ratio will be lower than it should be.

10. Metals Corp. has \$2,575,000 of debt, \$550,000 of preferred stock, and \$18,125,000 of common equity. Metals Corp.'s after-tax cost of debt is 5.25%, preferred stock has a cost of 6.35%, and newly issued common stock has a cost of 14.05%. What is Metals Corp.'s weighted average cost of capital?

• 8.32%
• 6.56%
• 10.84%
• 12.78%

11. Which of the following financial ratios is the best measure of the operating effectiveness of a firm's management?

• Return on investment
• Gross profit margin
• Current ratio
• Quick ratio

12. We compute the profitability index of a capital-budgeting proposal by Initial outlay = \$1,748.80

• dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cost of capital.
• multiplying the cash inflow by the IRR.
• multiplying the IRR by the cost of capital.
• dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cost of the project.

Want to see the complete Individual Assignment Check..??Click Fin 370 Complete Individual Assignments

13. A company collects 60% of its sales during the month of the sale, 30% one month after the sale, and 10% two months after the sale. The company expects sales of \$10,000 in August, \$20,000 in September, \$30,000 in October, and \$40,000 in November. How much money is expected to be collected in October?

• \$15,000
• \$35,000
• \$25,000
• \$45,000

14. Which of the following could offset the higher risk exposure a company would face if it’s current ratio and net working capital were relatively low?

• Its accounts receivable collection policy could increase the average collection period.
• It could offer no discounts for early payment by its customers.
• It could buy back some of its shares in the open market in order to reduce its equity.
• Its current assets would need to be highly liquid.

Quiz Answers just a click away FIN 370 Complete Course

15. The Oviedo Thespians are planning to present performances of their Florida Revue on 2 consecutive nights in January. It will cost them \$5,000 per night for theater rental, event insurance and professional musicians. The theater will also take 10% of gross ticket sales. How many tickets must they sell at \$10.00 per ticket to raise \$1,000 for their organization?

• 1,314 tickets
• 1,112 tickets
• 1,223 tickets
• 1000 tickets

16. Aspects of demand risk controllable by the firm include:

• product quality.
• interest rates.
• entry of external competitors.
• status of the regional and national economy.

17. Which of the following is true regarding Investment Banks?

• As of 2010, stand alone Investment banks are numerous.
• Under the Glass-Steagal act, commercial banks were allowed to operate as Investment banks.
• As a result of the financial crisis of 2008, all stand-alone Investment banks either failed, were merged into commercial banks, or became commercial banks.
• When Glass-Steagal was repealed in 1999, commercial banks and Investment banks had to be separate entities.

18. Given an accounts receivable turnover of 8 and annual credit sales of \$362,000, the average collection period (360-day year) is

• 60 days.
• 75 days
• 90 days.
• 45 days.

19. When the impact of taxes is considered, as the firm takes on more debt

• there will be no change in total cash flows.
• cash flows will increase because taxes will decrease.
• the weighted average cost of capital will increase.
• both taxes and total cash flow to stockholders and bondholders will decrease.

20. If you have \$20,000 in an account earning 8% annually, what constant amount could you withdraw each year and have nothing remaining at the end of five years?

• \$5,008.76
• \$3,525.62
• \$3,408.88
• \$2,465.78

Complete paper here FIN 370 Complete Paper

21. Apple Two Enterprises expects to generate sales of \$5,950,000 for fiscal 2014; sales were \$3,450,000 in fiscal 2013. Assume the following figures for the fiscal year ending 2013: cash \$70,000; accounts receivable \$250,000; inventory \$400,000; net fixed assets \$520,000; accounts payable \$235,000; and accruals \$155,000. Use the percent-of-sales method to forecast cash for the fiscal year ending 2014.

• \$75,003
• \$216,418
• \$120,725
• \$319,604

22. If managers are making decisions to maximize shareholder wealth, then they are primarily concerned with making decisions that should:

• maximize sales revenues
• either increase or have no effect on the value of the firm's common stock.
• increase the market value of the firm's common stock.
• positively affect profits.

23. Project Sigma requires an investment of \$1 million and has a NPV of \$10. Project Delta requires an investment of \$500,000 and has a NPV of \$150,000. The projects involve unrelated new product lines. What is your evaluation of these two projects?

• Only project Delta should be accepted. Alpha's NPV is too low for the investment.
• Neither project should be accepted because they might compete with one another
• The company should look at other investment criteria, not just NPV.
• Both projects should be accepted because they have positive NPV's

24. Capital Structure Theory in general assumes that:

• A firm's value is determined by discounting the firm's expected cash flows by the WACC.
• A firm's cost of capital rises as a firm uses more financial leverage.
• A firm's value is determined by capitalizing (discounting) the firm's expected net income by the firm's cost of equity.
• A firm's cash flows will grow indefinitely at a constant rate.

25. Which of the following best describes why cash flows are utilized rather than accounting profits when evaluating capital projects?

• Cash flows reflect the timing of benefits and costs more accurately than accounting profits.
• Cash flows have a greater present value than accounting profits.
• Cash flows improve the tax position of a firm more than accounting profits.
• Cash flows are more stable than accounting profits.

26. Which of the following is not part of the underwriting process?

• the syndicate
• the prospectus
• the Federal Reserve
• the Securities and Exchange Commission

27. Long-term financial plans typically encompass:

• 6 to 12 months.
• 5 to 10 years.
• the entire lifecycle of the corporation.

28. Accounting break-even analysis solves for the level of sales that will result in:

• IRR = Cost of Capital.
• net income = \$0.00.
• Free cash flow = \$0.00.
• NPV = \$0.00.

29. Which of the following statements best represents what finance is about?

• How political, social, and economic forces affect corporations
• Reducing risk
• Creation and maintenance of economic wealth
• Maximizing profits

30. Which of the following goals is in the best long-term interest of stockholders?

• Risk minimization
• Maximizing of the market value of the existing shareholders' common stock
• Maximizing sales revenues
• Profit maximization

Final Exam Answers just a click away FIN 370 Complete Final Exam Assignments

Article Author

This article covers the topic for the University Of Phoenix FIN 370 Final Exam  The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of  FIN 370 Final Exam Question Answer  from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:

Want to check other classes..?? Visit http://www.studentehelp.com